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posted by martyb on Thursday December 10 2015, @11:14AM   Printer-friendly
from the non-voting-person-OR-non-person-voter dept.

The LA Times and just about every news outlet has a story about a Supreme Court case which could change how election districts are drawn up.

At issue before the court was the basic question of who gets counted when election districts are drawn: Is it all people, including children, prisoners and immigrants who are not eligible to vote? Or is it only adult citizens who are eligible voters?

The case centers around districts with heavy concentrations of people not eligible to vote (generally illegal aliens). These are counted by the census, and that district gets legislative representation based on their presence, even when there are fewer actual voters in those districts. The plaintiffs claim this give more weight to voters in such district, over an equal number of voters in other districts.

The challengers cited the example of two Texas state Senate districts, both of which have about 800,000 residents. One rural district in east Texas, where plaintiff Sue Evenwel resides, had about 574,000 citizens who are eligible to vote; the other district in the Rio Grande valley had only 372,000 people who are eligible to vote. The lawsuit in Evenwel vs. Abbott argues this is unconstitutional.

Do Soylentils see the allocation of election districts as a process to distribute legislative seats equally over the number of voters, or equally over the number of people (regardless of whether those people can vote or not)? (Or is this where we launch off on the usual discussions of a total redesign of the US Voting system to some totally different mathematical model?)


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  • (Score: 0) by Anonymous Coward on Thursday December 10 2015, @09:30PM

    by Anonymous Coward on Thursday December 10 2015, @09:30PM (#274652)

    There is no such thing as the Middle Class.
    It's an invention of Lamestream Media.
    It's just 2 marks arbitrarily drawn on a graph.
    No 2 people agree where the marks go.
    The term is useless.

    There are only 2 classes:
    1) People who have to supply labor to earn a living
    2) People who make money from money.

    The 1st is called The Working Class; Marx called them The Proletariat.
    The 2nd is called The Idle Rich or The Elite or The Ruling Class; Marx called them The Bourgeoisie.

    ...and the income of the Working Class flattened starting right after Nixon's trip to China in 1972.
    (The wage graph actually shows the inflection point at 1968.)
    We've been going negative for 4 decades.
    If worker pay had kept up with worker productivity or inflation, the minimum wage would be over $22.

    -- gewg_

  • (Score: 2) by maxwell demon on Friday December 11 2015, @08:08AM

    by maxwell demon (1608) on Friday December 11 2015, @08:08AM (#274865) Journal

    And to which class do you count those who make money both through labour and through money?

    --
    The Tao of math: The numbers you can count are not the real numbers.
    • (Score: 0) by Anonymous Coward on Saturday December 12 2015, @12:27AM

      by Anonymous Coward on Saturday December 12 2015, @12:27AM (#275239)

      For those who missed it the 1st time:
      People who have to supply labor to earn a living [are] called The Working Class.

      If you can sit on your ass and just wait for the dividend checks to arrive then, for you, doing labor is clearly not a necessity, it is a pastime.

      ...and if the elective labor you do consists of figuring out more ways to screw over people who do have to work for a living, an additional descriptor for your bunch is The Oppressor Class.

      -- gewg_