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posted by chromas on Sunday October 14 2018, @10:00AM   Printer-friendly
from the ♫♪I-want-my-FTC♪♫ dept.

FCC Tells Court it has no "Legal Authority" to Impose Net Neutrality Rules:

FCC defends repeal in court, claims broadband isn't "telecommunications."

The Federal Communications Commission opened its defense of its net neutrality repeal yesterday, telling a court that it has no authority to keep the net neutrality rules in place.

Chairman Ajit Pai's FCC argued that broadband is not a "telecommunications service" as defined in federal law, and therefore it must be classified as an information service instead. As an information service, broadband cannot be subject to common carrier regulations such as net neutrality rules, Pai's FCC said. The FCC is only allowed to impose common carrier regulations on telecommunications services.

"Given these classification decisions, the Commission determined that the Communications Act does not endow it with legal authority to retain the former conduct rules," the FCC said in a summary of its defense [pdf] filed yesterday in the US Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit.

The FCC is defending the net neutrality repeal against a lawsuit filed by more than 20 state attorneys general, consumer advocacy groups, and tech companies. The FCC's opponents in the case will file reply briefs next month, and oral arguments are scheduled for February.

Then why not let the states implement it?


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  • (Score: 2) by DrkShadow on Sunday October 14 2018, @07:10PM (5 children)

    by DrkShadow (1404) on Sunday October 14 2018, @07:10PM (#748686)

    -- because words change meanings with time.

    Are you suggesting that using a data-backed thing to communicate via voice and image with a family member is not communications?

    How about requesting data from a plethora of different servers to render you images?

    If you call a librarian and ask for some information, and they provide it over the phone, is this a data service or a communication service?

    The words all mean the same thing. The transport medium scarcely matters. Only if you're batch-processing huge amounts of information, perhaps, is it "data service" -- such as Walmart transferring databases between datacenters. Still, Netflix transferring 4GB to your TV is much more of a communication service, right?

    The meanings of words change. Further, the meanings of words are not absolute, they're relative to whatever need the person had when they were created, and then they're slotted into a legal program for which they were never created. (Then that legal program also defines the term. How is "telecommunication" defined in the legal program/document in which it's being used?)

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  • (Score: 2) by The Mighty Buzzard on Monday October 15 2018, @12:03AM (4 children)

    by The Mighty Buzzard (18) Subscriber Badge <themightybuzzard@proton.me> on Monday October 15 2018, @12:03AM (#748763) Homepage Journal

    Mostly I'm suggesting that you redefining a word so that a law means what you want it to mean is some extremely unethical bullshit.

    --
    My rights don't end where your fear begins.
    • (Score: 3, Insightful) by urza9814 on Monday October 15 2018, @03:07PM (3 children)

      by urza9814 (3954) on Monday October 15 2018, @03:07PM (#749080) Journal

      Mostly I'm suggesting that you redefining a word so that a law means what you want it to mean is some extremely unethical bullshit.

      Or it's more ethical by making the law actually reflect reality. Depends how it's done. The definition of the word as it is used in that law is probably also part of the law. Most laws contain a glossary of terms -- any ambiguity in the definition means ambiguity in the law, so lawyers usually like to clear that up by providing their own legally precise definition. If the definition given in the law begins to drift from the common usage (ie, if the definition in law actually states that internet is not telecommunications) then the law should be fixed by correcting that definition.

      • (Score: 2) by The Mighty Buzzard on Monday October 15 2018, @03:20PM (2 children)

        by The Mighty Buzzard (18) Subscriber Badge <themightybuzzard@proton.me> on Monday October 15 2018, @03:20PM (#749086) Homepage Journal

        No, it's not ethical to bypass congress's constitutionally granted exclusive authority. Not ever. Not for any reason.

        --
        My rights don't end where your fear begins.
        • (Score: 2) by urza9814 on Monday October 15 2018, @03:55PM (1 child)

          by urza9814 (3954) on Monday October 15 2018, @03:55PM (#749101) Journal

          The only way to change the definition is to have Congress amend the law. Changing the definition does not mean bypassing Congress' authority.