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posted by LaminatorX on Thursday April 24 2014, @06:44AM   Printer-friendly
from the Bright-Bards dept.

Dan Falk writes in Scientific American that in the last few years, scholars have begun to look more closely at William Shakespeare's interest in the scientific discoveries of his time-asking what he knew, when he knew it, and how that knowledge might be reflected in his work. Astronomer Peter Usher argues that examples of the playwright's scientific knowledge can be found in works spanning his entire career and has taken a particular interest in Hamlet, which he sees as an allegory about competing cosmological worldviews. "According to Usher, the play references not only Copernicus, but also Ptolemy, as well as Tycho Brahe (PDF), who pushed for a hybrid model of the solar system (a compromise that preserved elements of the ancient Ptolemaic system as well as the new Copernican model). Digges, too, is central to Usher's theory. When Hamlet envisions himself as "a king of infinite space," could he be alluding to the new, infinite universe described-for the first time-by his countryman Thomas Digges?" Usher's proposal may sound far-fetched-but even skeptics do a double take when they look at Tycho Brahe's coat of arms, noticing that two of Tycho's relatives were named "Rosencrans" and "Guildensteren."

According to Falk, Shakespeare's characters were connected to the cosmos in a way that seems quite foreign to the modern reader. Whether crying for joy or shedding tears of anguish, they look to the heavens for confirmation, calling out to "Jupiter" or "the gods" or "the heavens" as they struggle to make sense of their lives. "[Shakespeare] lived in an age of belief, yet a streak of skepticism runs through his work, especially toward the end of his career; in King Lear it reaches an almost euphoric nihilism. His characters often call upon the gods to help them, but their desperate pleas are rarely answered. Was Shakespeare a closet atheist, like his colleague Christopher Marlowe?

 
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  • (Score: 2) by Geezer on Thursday April 24 2014, @12:53PM

    by Geezer (511) on Thursday April 24 2014, @12:53PM (#35498)

    Quite possible, but consider that palace intrigue was not invisible to the many educated people in the financial, merchant, clergy, and civil servant classes. In fact, no landed baron could wield power without a substantial supporting faction besides his indentured yeomanry. William of Avon need not have been a peer himself to write from an informed viewpoint.

    This is one of the mysteries that invites all manner of investigation, supposition, and wild conspiracy theories.

    Here's one: Shakespeare was really but one incarnation of a cursed line that included Petronius Arbiter, Jonathan Swift, and Mark Twain. A lettered Blackadder!

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  • (Score: 2) by Hairyfeet on Thursday April 24 2014, @05:19PM

    by Hairyfeet (75) <bassbeast1968NO@SPAMgmail.com> on Thursday April 24 2014, @05:19PM (#35674) Journal

    The key word being "educated" which we so far have zero evidence that William of Avon had more than the most basic of education at best, certainly no evidence that he had the extensive classical education that would have been required to write what has been attributed to him.

    Until we have concrete evidence to support his higher education and formal training I will still lean to him being the classical form of wikileaks, with someone on the inside who feared reprisal writing his plays. Given what evidence we have it fits the evidence closest IMHO.

    --
    ACs are never seen so don't bother. Always ready to show SJWs for the racists they are.