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posted by janrinok on Wednesday March 26 2014, @10:01PM   Printer-friendly
from the companies==people-er-does-not-compute dept.

gishzida writes:

"According to a Reuters report Supreme Court signals support for corporate religious claims, "The U.S. Supreme Court appeared poised on Tuesday to open the door to companies' religious-based objections to government regulations as justices weighed whether business owners can object to part of President Barack Obama's healthcare law. From the article:

During a 90-minute oral argument, 30 minutes more than usual, a majority of the nine justices appeared ready to rule that certain for-profit entities have the same religious rights to object as individuals do. A ruling along those lines would likely only apply to closely held companies. As in most close cases of late, Justice Anthony Kennedy will likely be the deciding vote. Based on his questions, it was unclear whether the court would ultimately rule that the companies had a right to an exemption from the contraception provision of President Barack Obama's 2010 Affordable Care Act, commonly known as Obamacare.

The dozens of companies involved in the litigation do not all oppose every type of birth control. Some object only to emergency contraceptive methods, such as the so-called morning-after pill, which they view as akin to abortion.

The case marks the second time Obamacare has featured prominently before the Supreme Court. In 2012, the court upheld by a 5-4 vote the constitutionality of the act's core feature requiring people to get health insurance. Although the case has no bearing on the overall healthcare law, it features its own volatile mix of religious rights and reproductive rights. A capacity crowd filled the marble courtroom, while outside hundreds of demonstrators, most of them women, protested loudly in an early spring snowstorm.

We already know that the SCOTUS thinks corporations are citizens, do you think the SCOTUS should allow corporations to have religious beliefs too?"

 
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  • (Score: 1) by blackest_k on Thursday March 27 2014, @05:43PM

    by blackest_k (2045) on Thursday March 27 2014, @05:43PM (#22136)

    Thanks for the resources

    http://wiki.answers.com/Q/How_soon_can_a_woman_bec ome_pregnant_after_ejaculation [answers.com].

    "a women only becomes medically 'pregnant' once the fertilized egg implants in the uterus. The fertilized egg will travel down the fallopian tube and into the uterus, the whole time dividing into a bundle of cells called a blastocyst, and this process will take 5 days"

    It's possible that there may not be an egg at the time of having sex as sperm can hang around for around a week.

    If you use the definition medically pregnant then you have up to 5 days after sex in which a pregnancy can be prevented as opposed to aborted.

    It is by no means a forgone conclusion that the blastocyst will embed in the uterus. Thats why trying for a baby isn't instantly successful most of the time.

    But with people who have such faith in the unprovable, having evidence seems to have no effect in generating a rational thought process.